UPSC Previous Year Question

 Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None UPSC pre-2023 Answer -B  Analysis  Medium, NCERT class 11  India Physical Environment Jackfruit, is an evergreen tree native to tropical Asia. 1 is not correct.  It is widely grown throughout the wetland tropics for its large fruits and durable wood. It is the largest tree-borne fruit in the world, reaching up to 60 cm long and weighing up to 18 kg. 1 is not correct. Tropical Deciduous Forests AKA monsoon forests These are the most widespread forests in India. Rainfall - 70 -200 Type - Moist and Dry deciduous  Moist deciduous forests -  Rainfall between 100-200 cm. Location -  NE states along the foothills of the Himalayas,  eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha.  Main species   Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. Dry deciduous

 Consider the following pairs: Port:                             Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port :  First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port :      Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam:   Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Answer - B  Analysis  Medium, Current affair  Explanation  Kamarajar Port,  first port in India which is a public company. So, 1 is true. Mundra Port is largest privately owned port in India.  . So, 2 is true. Visakhapatnam is not the largest container port in India. So 3 is wrong. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) at Navi Mumbai is the largest container port. In Future their location based question can be asked  Kamarajar Port, located near the Coromandel Coast. Mundra port is Located in the Kutch district of the state of Gujarat.

 Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Upsc pre 2023 Answer - A Analysis  Difficult, Current affair  Explanation  Tip  UPSC ask about lakes which are news especially due to negative reasons. Wular Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir which is fed by River Jhelum. So, 1 is true. Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh  is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers Budameru and Tamleru. Kanwar lake is a dying lake in Bihar.  It is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake,  It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the meandering of the Burhi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga. Expected questions in UPSC pre-2024, UPSC pre-2025, UPSC pre 2026 Wular Lake is Asia's 2nd largest fresh-wat

Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Upsc pre 2023 Analysis  - Difficult Explanation  What is Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)?   They are a group of chemicals used for cooling and refrigeration It is used in  insulating foams and aerosol propellants,  fire protection, Synthetic lubricant. Expected question in future.... Why HFCs are used? They were developed to replace stratospheric ozone depleting substances that are currently being phased out under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. HFCs represent only 1% of total greenhouse gas but its impact is much higher than carbon dioxide per unit mass. What is Kigali Amendment to montreal protocol? It entered into force in 2019. Under this, countries commit to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by more  than 80% over the next 30 years.

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrap insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (a) Fishing cat (b) Orangutan (c) Otter (d) Sloth bear UPSC pre 2023 Answer- B  Analysis  Difficult  Orangutans are great apes native to the rainforests of Indonesia and Malaysia.  They are now found only in parts of Borneo and Sumatra. They are non native to India. Fishing cat is a medium-sized wild cat of South and Southeast Asia. Since 2016, it is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List Tip - Previous year question could have helped you. From the point of view of the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution? (2010) (A) Otter - Tortoise — Shark  (B) Shark - Tortoise - Otter (C) Tortoise - Shark - Otter  (D) Shark - Otter - Tortoise Answer - B  Shark - Scientists believe that sharks came into existence around 400 million years ago. Tortoise - 250 MYA  Otter - 23 MYA  Otters are carnivorous mammals in the subfamily Lutrina

UPSC pre 2023  Consider the following statements: 1.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2.Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3.Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Answer - C  Tip - Usually statement having Some are correct. Example - UPSC pre 2023 https://upscpreviousyearquestion.blogspot.com/2024/01/consider-following-statements-1-some.html Tip Question asked in UPSC pre exam specially in environment is getting random or difficult becasue Indian forest  service pre is clubbed together with upsc pre exam. So, do not worry about difficult pre question of environment because your competition will not be able to do it. Archaea is a domain of single-celled organisms. These microorganisms lack cell nuclei and are therefore prokaryotes. P

 Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1.They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2.They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3.They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None UPSC pre 2023 Answer - B Analysis  Difficult  Tip Question asked in UPSC pre exam specially in environment is getting random or difficult becasue Indian forest service pre is clubbed together with upsc pre exam. So, do not worry about difficult pre question of environment because your competition will not be able to do it. What are Arboreal species? Animals that live in the trees are called 'arboreal'. Giant tree squirrels are arboreal species and live mostly on trees in the forest but now also have adapted to human environments. so , 1 is false. To prepare for winter squirrels bury the surplus in the area surrounding their nests. So, 2 is correct. Squirrels mostly eat nuts and

Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Answer - D Tip Usually  statement  having Some are correct.  Tip Question asked in UPSC pre exam specially in environment is getting random or difficult becasue Indian forest service pre is clubbed together with upsc pre exam. So, do not worry about difficult pre question of environment because your competition will not be able to do it. Pleurotus/oyster mushroom possesses medicinal properties and health-promoting effects. So, 1 is correct. Psilocybin or magic mushrooms are naturally occurring and are consumed for their hallucinogenic effects.  So, 2 is correct. mushrooms have been found to contain insecticidal compound. So, 3 is correct. Some mushrooms use luciferin

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (a) Butterflies (b) Dragonflies (c) Honeybees (d) Wasps Answer - C Analysis  Medium, Current affair  The honey bee dance – also known as the waggle dance, is a form of communication performed by worker honey bees to other members of the honey bee colony. 

 Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Answer - B Difficult and factual question Tip  This sort of question can be done by doing the previous year question because these animals are asked in UPSC previous year question. lion-tailed macaque diurnal, meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours. so, 1 is wrong. And 2 and 3 are correct because they are Diurnal.

Invasive species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) The United Nations Environment Programme (c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development. (d) The World Wide Fund for Nature Answer - A  Analysis  Meidum, Current affair  Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Answer - C Analysis  Medium , Current affair  In April 2022, it was reported in many newspapers that Kangaroos (marsupials) are being smuggled into India. As you Know Kangaroos not natuarally found in India.  They are found in Australia, New Guinea, and neighbouring islands and are not restricted to montane grassland.

 Consider the following statements: Statement I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Answer - C Analysis  Medium-level question, Current affair  Statement 1 is asked because - Huge deposits of Uranium were found in Rajasthan Statement 2 is asked because -  International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) has found 84% enriched uranium at Iran's nuclear site In India around 75% of the total power generation is done throu

 Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of the administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statements-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and StatementII is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but StatementII is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Solution  C Analysis  Medium, factual  Explanation M Nagaraj v Union of India 2006 — that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the  Constitution would be limited by Article 335, which provi

 With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of  Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Answer  B Analysis  Difficult, Factual  Explaination  President is empowered to declare any area as Scheduled Area after consultation with Governor. So, 1 is true. The criteria followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area are Preponderance (Dominance) of tribal population; Compactness and reasonable size of the area;- viable entity for administration such as taluk, block, or district Under-de

  If a particular area is brought under the  Fifth Schedule of the Constitution  of India , which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?  (a)  This would prevent the  transfer of land  of tribal people to non-tribal people. (b)  This would create a  local self-governing body  in that area. (c)  This would convert that area into a  Union Territory. (d) The State having such areas would be declared a  Special Category State. Solution  A   Concept - 5th and 6th schedule   Intro Article 244 under Part X --- Envisage---Special system Administration for Certain areas --- SA & TA     Note -  AME Tree  पर बैठकर मजे से रम पी रही है  और  Vicks  लगा रही है क्यूंकि उन्हें झुखाम हो गया है |   Important Case which is further fortified by the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment where the Supreme Court[SC] declared that the transfer of tribal  land to private parties for mining was null and void  under the Fifth Schedule.   Note - Samatha, a

 Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. Hunting is not allowed in such area. 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Answer - C Analysis  Medium level , Current affair Explaination  As Per Wild life protection act, Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of Community reserve. So, 1 is correct. In Community Reserve Hunting is not allowed to facillitate conservation of wildlife and their habitat. So, 2 is correct. In community reserve people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce but not allowed to traditional agriculture practices.  So, 3 correct and 4 is wrong. Future quest

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill  to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three  (d) None Answer - A Trick - Finance Bill = Money Bill  Analysis  Difficult,  Factual, Budget basics, parliament basics  Explanation  What is finance Bill? A Finance Bill is a type of Money Bill as defined in Article 110 (a) of the Constitution. It deals with the proposals of the  1. Government for levy of new taxes 2. Modification of the existing tax structure or continuance of the existing tax struc

 Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Answer  D Analysis  Difficult, Factual, presidential election held last year  Explanation  As per Article 71,  Both 1 & 2 wrong  No time limit mentioned in constitution. So, 3 is also wrong. Article 71  Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a president or Vice President (1) All doubts and disputes arisin